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UPCAT Reviewer

205 practice questions with worked answers for the University of the Philippines College Admission Test (UPCAT)

https://www.upcatreviewer.online · compiled 2026-07-31 · CC-BY-4.0

Independent practice material. Not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sourced from the University of the Philippines. Contains no past examination papers. Check upcat.up.edu.ph for the official format.

English Language Proficiency, 45 questions

Choose the option that best completes or corrects each item.

  1. Neither of the two proposals submitted by the committee ______ the mayor's approval.

    1. A. have earned
    2. B. has earned
    3. C. were earning
    4. D. are earning

    Answer: B. has earned

    "Neither" is singular, so it takes a singular verb. The plural noun in the prepositional phrase "of the two proposals" does not change the subject's number.

  2. The number of applicants for the scholarship ______ risen sharply this year.

    1. A. have
    2. B. are
    3. C. were
    4. D. has

    Answer: D. has

    "The number of" is singular and takes a singular verb. Compare "A number of applicants have risen from their seats," where the subject is plural.

  3. The panel gave the research award to Miguel and ______.

    1. A. I
    2. B. myself
    3. C. mine
    4. D. me

    Answer: D. me

    The pronoun is the object of the preposition "to," so the objective case "me" is required. Remove "Miguel and" to test it: "gave the award to me."

  4. Which revision corrects the dangling modifier in "Rushing to catch the bus, the umbrella was left on the bench"?

    1. A. The umbrella, rushing to catch the bus, was left on the bench.
    2. B. Rushing to catch the bus, she left the umbrella on the bench.
    3. C. Rushing to catch the bus, the bench held the umbrella.
    4. D. The umbrella was left on the bench, rushing to catch the bus.

    Answer: B. Rushing to catch the bus, she left the umbrella on the bench.

    An introductory participial phrase must modify the subject of the main clause. Only the revision that makes "she" the subject supplies something that can actually rush for a bus; an umbrella and a bench cannot.

  5. The workshop trains students to write clearly, to argue logically, and ______.

    1. A. thinking creatively
    2. B. to think creatively
    3. C. creative thinking
    4. D. they think creatively

    Answer: B. to think creatively

    Items in a series must share the same grammatical form. The first two are infinitive phrases, so the third must be one as well.

  6. By the time the volunteers arrived, the floodwater ______ the entire ground floor.

    1. A. submerges
    2. B. has submerged
    3. C. will submerge
    4. D. had submerged

    Answer: D. had submerged

    The past perfect marks the earlier of two past events. The flooding finished before the volunteers arrived.

  7. The archivist was meticulous in labeling every folder. As used here, "meticulous" most nearly means

    1. A. hasty
    2. B. reluctant
    3. C. painstaking
    4. D. indifferent

    Answer: C. painstaking

    "Meticulous" describes extreme attention to small details, which is what "painstaking" captures.

  8. Mobile phones have become ubiquitous even in remote barangays. As used here, "ubiquitous" most nearly means

    1. A. present everywhere
    2. B. expensive
    3. C. unreliable
    4. D. fashionable

    Answer: A. present everywhere

    "Ubiquitous" means found or existing everywhere at once.

  9. Critics argued that the official's apology was disingenuous. As used here, "disingenuous" most nearly means

    1. A. heartfelt
    2. B. insincere
    3. C. long-winded
    4. D. confusing

    Answer: B. insincere

    "Disingenuous" means not truly candid, giving a false impression of sincerity.

  10. "It is almost midnight; let's call it a day." The underlined idiom means to

    1. A. stop working for now
    2. B. set a specific date
    3. C. celebrate an achievement
    4. D. postpone something indefinitely

    Answer: A. stop working for now

    "Call it a day" means to stop an activity, treating the work as finished for the time being.

  11. Which sentence contains a comma splice?

    1. A. The rain stopped, so the game resumed.
    2. B. When the rain stopped, the game resumed.
    3. C. The rain stopped, the game resumed.
    4. D. The rain stopped; the game resumed.

    Answer: C. The rain stopped, the game resumed.

    A comma splice joins two independent clauses with only a comma. The others use a coordinating conjunction, a subordinator, or a semicolon.

  12. Which sentence uses the semicolon correctly?

    1. A. The results were conclusive; therefore, the study was published.
    2. B. The results were conclusive; and the study was published.
    3. C. The results were conclusive; because the sample was large.
    4. D. The results; were conclusive and widely cited.

    Answer: A. The results were conclusive; therefore, the study was published.

    A semicolon links two independent clauses, often before a conjunctive adverb like "therefore." It should not precede a coordinating conjunction, a subordinate clause, or split a subject from its verb.

  13. ______ did the selection committee choose as chairperson?

    1. A. Who
    2. B. Whose
    3. C. Who's
    4. D. Whom

    Answer: D. Whom

    The pronoun is the object of "choose," so the objective form "whom" is correct. Rearranged: "The committee chose whom as chairperson?"

  14. ______ students enrolled this term than last term.

    1. A. Less
    2. B. Lesser
    3. C. Little
    4. D. Fewer

    Answer: D. Fewer

    "Fewer" is used with countable nouns like "students"; "less" is used with uncountable quantities.

  15. She ______ the folders on the table before leaving the office.

    1. A. laid
    2. B. lay
    3. C. lain
    4. D. lied

    Answer: A. laid

    "Lay" (to place something) is transitive and its past form is "laid." "Lay" is also the past of intransitive "lie," which is the trap here.

  16. The new attendance policy will ______ every department in the university.

    1. A. effect
    2. B. affects
    3. C. affect
    4. D. effects

    Answer: C. affect

    "Affect" is the verb meaning to influence. "Effect" is normally a noun meaning result.

  17. If I ______ in your position, I would ask for an extension.

    1. A. am
    2. B. was
    3. C. were
    4. D. will be

    Answer: C. were

    A hypothetical, contrary-to-fact condition uses the subjunctive "were" regardless of the subject.

  18. Of the three routes to the campus, this one is the ______.

    1. A. shorter
    2. B. shortest
    3. C. more short
    4. D. most shortest

    Answer: B. shortest

    The superlative is used when comparing three or more items; the comparative "shorter" is for exactly two.

  19. Which version expresses the idea most concisely without losing meaning?

    1. A. Due to the fact that it rained, the class was canceled.
    2. B. On account of the reason that it rained, the class was canceled.
    3. C. Because it rained, the class was canceled.
    4. D. Owing to the fact of rain having occurred, the class was canceled.

    Answer: C. Because it rained, the class was canceled.

    "Because" replaces the padded phrases in the other options with no loss of meaning.

  20. His conclusion is markedly different ______ the one presented in the earlier study.

    1. A. from
    2. B. than
    3. C. with
    4. D. against

    Answer: A. from

    Standard American usage pairs the adjective "different" with "from."

  21. This agreement is strictly between you and ______.

    1. A. me
    2. B. I
    3. C. myself
    4. D. mine

    Answer: A. me

    "Between" is a preposition and takes objects, so "me" is correct. "Between you and I" is a common overcorrection.

  22. ______ almost midnight, and the old generator has finally lost ______ power.

    1. A. Its, it's
    2. B. Its, its
    3. C. It's, its
    4. D. It's, it's

    Answer: C. It's, its

    "It's" is the contraction of "it is"; "its" is the possessive pronoun and never takes an apostrophe.

  23. He is one of the students who ______ selected for the exchange program.

    1. A. was
    2. B. is
    3. C. has been
    4. D. were

    Answer: D. were

    The relative pronoun "who" refers back to the plural "students," not to "one," so the verb is plural.

  24. In which sentence does "only" limit the number of chapters read?

    1. A. She read only three chapters.
    2. B. Only she read three chapters.
    3. C. She only read three chapters.
    4. D. She read three only chapters.

    Answer: A. She read only three chapters.

    A limiting modifier belongs immediately before the element it limits. In A it limits the reader, and in B it most naturally limits the action.

  25. Which sentence is punctuated correctly?

    1. A. My brother, who lives in Cebu, is a nurse.
    2. B. My brother who lives in Cebu, is a nurse.
    3. C. My brother, who lives in Cebu is a nurse.
    4. D. My brother who, lives in Cebu, is a nurse.

    Answer: A. My brother, who lives in Cebu, is a nurse.

    A nonrestrictive relative clause takes a comma on both sides. Omitting either one breaks the pair.

  26. The professor gave only a cursory glance at the draft before returning it. As used here, "cursory" most nearly means

    1. A. hasty and superficial
    2. B. thorough
    3. C. hostile
    4. D. admiring

    Answer: A. hasty and superficial

    "Cursory" describes something done quickly and without attention to detail.

  27. The reviewer remained skeptical even after seeing the data. As used here, "skeptical" most nearly means

    1. A. convinced
    2. B. doubtful
    3. C. delighted
    4. D. bewildered

    Answer: B. doubtful

    To be skeptical is to withhold belief, that is, to remain doubtful.

  28. Her explanation was succinct, and the audience grasped it at once. As used here, "succinct" most nearly means

    1. A. long-winded
    2. B. deliberately vague
    3. C. brief and clear
    4. D. highly emotional

    Answer: C. brief and clear

    "Succinct" means expressed compactly and clearly, which is why the audience understood immediately.

  29. "After missing the deadline, the intern was in hot water with his supervisor." The underlined idiom means he was

    1. A. completely relaxed
    2. B. extremely busy
    3. C. physically unwell
    4. D. in trouble

    Answer: D. in trouble

    "In hot water" means in a difficult situation, facing disapproval or punishment.

  30. "Take his estimate with a grain of salt." The underlined idiom advises you to

    1. A. accept it without question
    2. B. record it carefully
    3. C. repeat it to others
    4. D. treat it with some doubt

    Answer: D. treat it with some doubt

    The idiom counsels a degree of skepticism rather than full acceptance.

  31. Mathematics ______ the subject she enjoys most.

    1. A. are
    2. B. is
    3. C. were
    4. D. have been

    Answer: B. is

    Names of disciplines ending in -ics, such as mathematics, physics, and economics, are treated as singular.

  32. Each of the delegates ______ given a copy of the resolution.

    1. A. were
    2. B. was
    3. C. have
    4. D. are

    Answer: B. was

    "Each" is a singular indefinite pronoun and takes a singular verb.

  33. All applicants must submit ______ requirements before the posted deadline.

    1. A. his
    2. B. her
    3. C. their
    4. D. its

    Answer: C. their

    The antecedent "applicants" is plural, so the plural possessive "their" agrees with it.

  34. She finished the report last night and ______ it to the dean this morning.

    1. A. submit
    2. B. submits
    3. C. will submit
    4. D. submitted

    Answer: D. submitted

    Both actions are completed in the past, so the compound predicate stays in the simple past.

  35. The committee has ______ its recommendations in a two-page memo.

    1. A. wrote
    2. B. written
    3. C. writing
    4. D. write

    Answer: B. written

    The present perfect requires the past participle "written," not the past form "wrote."

  36. The new assistant proved fully capable ______ handling the account on her own.

    1. A. to
    2. B. for
    3. C. of
    4. D. with

    Answer: C. of

    The fixed expression is "capable of" followed by a gerund.

  37. The contractor was accused ______ negligence after the inspection.

    1. A. of
    2. B. for
    3. C. with
    4. D. to

    Answer: A. of

    "Accuse" takes "of" before the offense. Compare "blamed for," which takes a different preposition.

  38. Which word is misspelled?

    1. A. accommodate
    2. B. occurrence
    3. C. definately
    4. D. privilege

    Answer: C. definately

    The correct spelling is "definitely," from "definite," with an i rather than an a in the third syllable.

  39. Which word is spelled correctly?

    1. A. necessary
    2. B. recieve
    3. C. seperate
    4. D. occassion

    Answer: A. necessary

    The others should be "receive," "separate," and "occasion."

  40. Although the evidence was largely ______, the jury reached a verdict within an hour.

    1. A. overwhelming
    2. B. undisputed
    3. C. circumstantial
    4. D. conclusive

    Answer: C. circumstantial

    "Although" signals contrast, so the blank must weaken the case while the verdict came quickly. Circumstantial evidence is indirect, unlike the other three options.

  41. The mayor's closing speech was so ______ that even his longtime critics applauded.

    1. A. tedious
    2. B. muddled
    3. C. brief
    4. D. compelling

    Answer: D. compelling

    The "so ... that" structure requires a cause matching the effect. Only a compelling speech explains applause from critics.

  42. The budget was approved without amendment; ______, construction began the following week.

    1. A. however
    2. B. consequently
    3. C. nevertheless
    4. D. otherwise

    Answer: B. consequently

    The second clause is a result of the first, so a cause-and-effect connector is needed rather than a contrastive one.

  43. She reviewed her notes every night; ______, she failed to pass the licensure exam.

    1. A. therefore
    2. B. moreover
    3. C. likewise
    4. D. nonetheless

    Answer: D. nonetheless

    The outcome contradicts the expectation set by the first clause, so a concessive connector is required.

  44. Which sentence is the correct passive form of "The research team completed the survey in March"?

    1. A. The survey completed the research team in March.
    2. B. The survey was completed by the research team in March.
    3. C. The survey has been completing by the research team in March.
    4. D. The research team was completed by the survey in March.

    Answer: B. The survey was completed by the research team in March.

    In the passive voice the object becomes the subject, the verb takes a form of "be" plus the past participle, and the original subject follows "by."

  45. Which phrase is redundant?

    1. A. advance planning
    2. B. careful planning
    3. C. long-term planning
    4. D. strategic planning

    Answer: A. advance planning

    Planning is by definition done in advance, so "advance" adds nothing. The other modifiers each narrow the meaning.

Filipino Language Proficiency, 25 questions

Piliin ang titik ng pinakawastong sagot.

Ang Habihan ni Lola Sepa

Tuwing umaga, bago pa sumikat ang araw, naririnig na ang kalampag ng habihan sa likod-bahay ni Lola Sepa. Animnapung taon na siyang naghahabi ng inabel, ang telang matibay na ginagamit sa kanilang bayan bilang kumot, bigkis, at pantakip sa alay.

Walang nakasulat na patnubay sa kanyang gawain. Ang bilang ng sinulid, ang tamang higpit ng hila, at ang kahulugan ng bawat kulay ay naipasa sa kanya ng kanyang ina, at bago roon, ng lola niya.

Ngayon, tatlo na lamang ang naghahabi sa buong barangay. Sinabi ni Lola Sepa na hindi siya nag-aalala sa mga makinang gumagawa ng mas mabilis at mas murang tela. Ang inaalala niya ay walang batang nakaupo sa tabi ng habihan upang tumingin.

  1. Umalis siya ______ walang paalam sa kanyang mga magulang.

    1. A. ng
    2. B. nang
    3. C. nang mga
    4. D. na ng

    Answer: B. nang

    Ginagamit ang "nang" kapag nagpapakilala ito ng pamamaraan o kalagayan ng kilos. Ang "ng" ay panandang ginagamit sa pananda ng layon o pag-aari.

  2. Ang bubong ______ aming kapitbahay ay tinangay ng bagyo.

    1. A. nang
    2. B. nang sa
    3. C. ng nang
    4. D. ng

    Answer: D. ng

    Nagpapakita ng pag-aari ang panandang "ng": ang bubong ay pag-aari ng kapitbahay.

  3. Pumunta ______ ako sa palengke kaninang umaga.

    1. A. din
    2. B. dinsa
    3. C. rinsa
    4. D. rin

    Answer: D. rin

    Ginagamit ang "rin" kapag ang sinusundan nitong salita ay nagtatapos sa patinig o sa w at y. Nagtatapos sa patinig na a ang "pumunta."

  4. Masipag ______ siyang mag-aaral bukod sa matalino.

    1. A. din
    2. B. rin
    3. C. na rin lang
    4. D. rin naman

    Answer: A. din

    Nagtatapos sa katinig na g ang "masipag," kaya "din" ang wastong anyo.

  5. Anong aspekto ng pandiwa ang "nagbabasa" sa pangungusap na "Nagbabasa si Ana ng nobela"?

    1. A. Perpektibo
    2. B. Kontemplatibo
    3. C. Imperpektibo
    4. D. Katatapos

    Answer: C. Imperpektibo

    Ang aspektong imperpektibo ay nagsasaad ng kilos na nagsimula na ngunit hindi pa tapos, ibig sabihin, kasalukuyang ginagawa.

  6. Anong aspekto ng pandiwa ang "naglinis" sa pangungusap na "Naglinis siya ng kuwarto kahapon"?

    1. A. Perpektibo
    2. B. Imperpektibo
    3. C. Kontemplatibo
    4. D. Pawatas

    Answer: A. Perpektibo

    Tapos na ang kilos, kaya perpektibo ang aspekto.

  7. Anong aspekto ng pandiwa ang "magluluto" sa pangungusap na "Magluluto sila ng handa mamayang gabi"?

    1. A. Kontemplatibo
    2. B. Perpektibo
    3. C. Imperpektibo
    4. D. Katatapos

    Answer: A. Kontemplatibo

    Ang aspektong kontemplatibo ay tumutukoy sa kilos na hindi pa nagaganap ngunit balak pang gawin.

  8. Kung kasama ang kinakausap sa gawaing tinutukoy, alin ang wastong panghalip?

    1. A. kami
    2. B. sila
    3. C. tayo
    4. D. kayo

    Answer: C. tayo

    Kasama ang kinakausap sa "tayo." Hindi kasama ang kinakausap kapag "kami" ang gamit.

  9. Anong tayutay ang ginamit sa "Ang kanyang mga mata ay dalawang bituin sa gabi"?

    1. A. Pagtutulad
    2. B. Personipikasyon
    3. C. Pagmamalabis
    4. D. Metapora o pagwawangis

    Answer: D. Metapora o pagwawangis

    Tuwirang itinutumbas ang mata sa bituin nang walang panandang tulad ng "parang" o "tila," kaya metapora ito.

  10. Anong tayutay ang ginamit sa "Parang agila kung lumipad ang kanyang isipan"?

    1. A. Pagtutulad o simili
    2. B. Metapora
    3. C. Pag-uyam
    4. D. Aliterasyon

    Answer: A. Pagtutulad o simili

    May panandang "parang," na katangian ng pagtutulad o simili.

  11. Anong tayutay ang ginamit sa "Humahalik ang alon sa dalampasigan"?

    1. A. Pagtutulad
    2. B. Pagmamalabis
    3. C. Metonimya
    4. D. Personipikasyon o pagsasatao

    Answer: D. Personipikasyon o pagsasatao

    Binigyan ng katangiang pantao, ang paghalik, ang isang bagay na walang buhay.

  12. Anong tayutay ang ginamit sa "Sandaang taon na akong naghihintay sa kanyang pagbabalik"?

    1. A. Personipikasyon
    2. B. Pagmamalabis o hayperbole
    3. C. Pagtutulad
    4. D. Pagtanggi

    Answer: B. Pagmamalabis o hayperbole

    Labis na pinalaki ang haba ng panahon upang bigyang-diin ang pakiramdam, kaya pagmamalabis ito.

  13. Ano ang kahulugan ng sawikaing "bukas ang palad"?

    1. A. Mahirap
    2. B. Tamad
    3. C. Mapagbigay
    4. D. Mahiyain

    Answer: C. Mapagbigay

    Tumutukoy ito sa taong madaling magbigay o tumulong sa kapwa.

  14. Ano ang kahulugan ng sawikaing "balat-sibuyas"?

    1. A. Mahilig sa pagkain
    2. B. Maputi ang balat
    3. C. Maramdamin o madaling masaktan
    4. D. Mabilis maglakad

    Answer: C. Maramdamin o madaling masaktan

    Tulad ng manipis na balat ng sibuyas, madaling masaktan ang damdamin ng taong balat-sibuyas.

  15. Sino ang tinutukoy ng sawikaing "haligi ng tahanan"?

    1. A. Ang ina
    2. B. Ang panganay
    3. C. Ang ama
    4. D. Ang lolo

    Answer: C. Ang ama

    Ang ama ang tinatawag na haligi ng tahanan, samantalang ang ina ay ilaw ng tahanan.

  16. Ano ang kahulugan ng sawikaing "nagbibilang ng poste"?

    1. A. Naglilibot sa lungsod
    2. B. Walang trabaho
    3. C. Marunong sa matematika
    4. D. Naghahanap ng bahay

    Answer: B. Walang trabaho

    Ginagamit ito upang tukuyin ang taong wala pang hanapbuhay at walang produktibong gawain.

  17. Ano ang kahulugan ng sawikaing "itaga sa bato"?

    1. A. Magpahinga nang matagal
    2. B. Tandaan at panindigan
    3. C. Magtago sa kaaway
    4. D. Magsimula sa umpisa

    Answer: B. Tandaan at panindigan

    Gaya ng pagkakaukit sa bato na hindi na mapapawi, nangangahulugan ito ng isang tandaan o pangakong panindigan.

  18. Alin ang kasingkahulugan ng "masigasig"?

    1. A. Matiyaga
    2. B. Mapagmataas
    3. C. Maligalig
    4. D. Mapayapa

    Answer: A. Matiyaga

    Ang masigasig ay nagsisikap at hindi sumusuko, kaya matiyaga ang katumbas nito.

  19. Alin ang kasalungat ng "matipid"?

    1. A. Maramot
    2. B. Masinop
    3. C. Gastador
    4. D. Maunawain

    Answer: C. Gastador

    Ang gastador ay mapaglustay ng salapi, kabaligtaran ng matipid. Hindi kasalungat ang maramot dahil ito rin ay may kaugnayan sa pag-iimbot.

  20. ______ pagod na siya, nagpatuloy pa rin siya sa paghahanap.

    1. A. Kahit
    2. B. Dahil
    3. C. Upang
    4. D. Habang

    Answer: A. Kahit

    Kailangan ng pang-ugnay na nagpapakita ng pagsalungat sa inaasahan, at ito ang tungkulin ng "kahit."

  21. Ano ang wastong anyo ng "pang-" kapag ikinabit sa salitang-ugat na "bansa"?

    1. A. pangbansa
    2. B. panbansa
    3. C. pang-bansa
    4. D. pambansa

    Answer: D. pambansa

    Nagiging "pam-" ang "pang-" kapag ang salitang-ugat ay nagsisimula sa b o p. Halimbawa pa: pampaaralan, pambato.

  22. Ano ang wastong anyo ng "pang-" kapag ikinabit sa salitang-ugat na "sulat"?

    1. A. pangsulat
    2. B. panulat
    3. C. pamsulat
    4. D. pang-sulat

    Answer: B. panulat

    Nagiging "pan-" ang "pang-" bago ang d, l, r, s, at t, at nalalagas ang unang titik ng salitang-ugat sa ganitong pagsasanib: pan- at sulat ay nagiging panulat.

  23. Ano ang pangunahing diwa ng teksto?

    1. A. Nanganganib mawala ang tradisyong paghahabi dahil walang tagapagpatuloy.
    2. B. Mas matibay ang inabel kaysa sa telang gawa ng makina.
    3. C. Mahirap ang buhay ng mga manghahabi sa barangay.
    4. D. Naipasa ng ina ni Lola Sepa ang kaalaman sa paghahabi.

    Answer: A. Nanganganib mawala ang tradisyong paghahabi dahil walang tagapagpatuloy.

    Nagtatapos ang teksto sa pangamba ni Lola Sepa na walang batang nagmamasid sa tabi ng habihan, at ito ang pinakamalawak na diwang bumubuklod sa buong akda.

  24. Batay sa teksto, paano nalaman ni Lola Sepa ang kahulugan ng bawat kulay sa inabel?

    1. A. Mula sa isang nakasulat na patnubay
    2. B. Mula sa kanyang ina at lola
    3. C. Mula sa mga mamimili sa palengke
    4. D. Mula sa pagsubok sa loob ng animnapung taon

    Answer: B. Mula sa kanyang ina at lola

    Nakasaad sa ikalawang talata na naipasa sa kanya ng kanyang ina, at bago roon ng kanyang lola, ang mga detalyeng ito.

  25. Alin ang pinakamatibay na mahihinuha tungkol sa pananaw ni Lola Sepa?

    1. A. Ninanais niyang ipagbawal ang mga makinang gumagawa ng tela.
    2. B. Naniniwala siyang mas mahusay ang mga manghahabi noong panahon ng kanyang lola.
    3. C. Balak niyang itigil ang paghahabi sa lalong madaling panahon.
    4. D. Higit siyang nababahala sa pagpapatuloy ng kaalaman kaysa sa kompetisyon sa presyo.

    Answer: D. Higit siyang nababahala sa pagpapatuloy ng kaalaman kaysa sa kompetisyon sa presyo.

    Tahasang sinabi niyang hindi siya nag-aalala sa mga makina, at ang inaalala niya ay ang kawalan ng batang magmamasid at magpapatuloy sa gawain.

Reading Comprehension Reading Comprehension, 35 questions

Read each passage, then answer the questions that follow. Base your answers only on what the passage states or implies. As in the actual UPCAT, this section includes passages in both English and Filipino.

The Cost of Modernizing the Jeepney

Few objects carry as much civic meaning as the jeepney. Assembled from surplus military chassis after the war, it became the cheapest way for millions of commuters to reach work, and its hand-painted panels turned each unit into a moving signature of its owner.

The case for replacing the fleet is not hard to state. Older units burn diesel inefficiently, fail emissions standards, and lack the structural features that would protect passengers in a collision. A newer vehicle would cut both particulate pollution and injury rates.

Yet the arithmetic falls unevenly. A modern unit can cost twenty times what a driver earns in a year, and most drivers do not own the vehicle they operate. They rent it daily, surrender a fixed sum to the operator, and keep whatever fares remain. A financing scheme calculated against a stable monthly salary does not describe their situation at all.

The question, then, is not whether the fleet should change. It is who absorbs the cost of changing it. A policy that improves air quality while pushing thousands of drivers out of the trade has not solved a problem so much as relocated it onto the people least able to carry it.

Why Corals Turn White

A healthy coral is not a single organism but a partnership. The coral animal builds the limestone skeleton, while microscopic algae called zooxanthellae live inside its tissues, converting sunlight into sugars. The algae supply as much as ninety percent of the coral's energy, and they also give the reef its color.

When water temperature rises even one to two degrees Celsius above the usual summer maximum and stays there for several weeks, the partnership breaks down. The algae begin producing compounds that damage the host, and the coral expels them. What remains is translucent tissue over a white skeleton, which is why the event is called bleaching.

A bleached coral is not yet a dead coral. If temperatures fall soon enough, it can reacquire algae and recover, though it will typically grow more slowly and reproduce less for years afterward. If the heat persists, the coral starves.

The difficulty is one of interval rather than intensity. Reefs have always endured occasional hot years. What is new is the shortening gap between them, which leaves too little time for recovery before the next event begins.

The Last Bus

Delia had rehearsed the sentence for three weeks. She would say it at the terminal, where the noise would carry half of it away and her mother would have to lean in, and leaning in would soften whatever came next.

But her mother arrived early, and she arrived with food. Two plastic bags of it, still warm, arranged in the order Delia would want to eat them. She set them on the bench and did not sit down.

"Manila is not far," her mother said, before Delia had opened her mouth. "Four hours. Less, if the road is clear."

Delia looked at the bags. Someone had woken at three in the morning to make what was inside them.

"I was going to explain," she said.

"I know what you were going to say." Her mother finally sat, smoothing her skirt with both hands, the way she did before difficult conversations at church. "I said the same thing to my mother. She let me finish. It took me eleven minutes." She looked up. "Go on, then. I will not interrupt."

And Delia, who had rehearsed for three weeks, found she could not remember the first line.

Heat Islands and the Value of Shade

Two neighborhoods in the same city can differ by as much as five degrees Celsius on the same afternoon. The mechanism is straightforward. Asphalt and concrete absorb solar radiation during the day and release it slowly after sunset, so a district with little vegetation stays hot long into the night. Trees interrupt the cycle twice: their canopies block radiation before it reaches the pavement, and the water they release through their leaves carries heat away as it evaporates.

Measurements across several tropical cities suggest that raising canopy cover from ten percent to thirty percent of a district's surface lowers peak afternoon temperature by roughly two to three degrees. The effect on nighttime temperature is smaller but more consequential for health, since sustained overnight heat is what drives hospital admissions during heat waves.

Canopy cover, however, tracks income closely. Wealthier districts were often planted decades earlier, and their trees have had time to mature; newer settlements built at higher density have narrow roads with no space reserved for planting. The result is that the residents most exposed to extreme heat, and least able to afford air conditioning, live where there is least shade.

What an Archive Cannot Hold

Historians of the region face a particular difficulty. The written record was produced almost entirely by administrators, and administrators wrote about what they needed to count: tribute owed, households registered, disputes brought before a court. A village appears in the archive on the day it becomes a fiscal problem and vanishes again once the matter is settled.

This does not make the documents useless. It makes them documents about administration, which is a narrower subject than the past.

Oral tradition covers different ground. It preserves genealogy, the boundaries of ancestral land, the reasons a settlement moved, and the obligations owed between families. It is also, as its critics correctly observe, revised in transmission: each generation adjusts emphasis to suit present concerns.

But written sources are revised too. A tribute assessment reflects what an official chose to record, sometimes what a community persuaded him to record, and often what could be defended if audited. Both kinds of evidence bear the marks of the interests that produced them. The useful question is not which source is honest, but what each was made for, and therefore what it can be expected to know.

Sleep and the Sorting of Memory

The old view of sleep treated it as a pause, a period in which the brain simply idled while the body repaired itself. Recordings of neural activity have made that description untenable. During deep sleep, the hippocampus replays sequences of activity from the day at accelerated speed, and the cortex receives them. Over successive nights, memories that begin as fragile hippocampal traces are gradually stabilized in cortical networks.

This process is selective. Not everything encoded during waking hours is retained, and the sorting appears to favor material the brain has been given reason to treat as important, whether by emotional weight or by a signal that it will be needed again.

The practical implication runs against a common student habit. A single long night of study before an examination allows almost no consolidation, because consolidation requires sleep that the night has been spent avoiding. The same total hours distributed across a week, each session followed by ordinary rest, produce markedly better retention.

Sleep, on this account, is not the interval between periods of learning. It is one of the periods of learning, and the one during which the sorting actually happens.

Ang Bayanihan sa Panahon ng Bagyo

Nang dumaan ang bagyo sa aming barangay, tatlong araw kaming walang kuryente at walang malinis na tubig. Ang inaasahan naming tulong mula sa labas ay hindi kaagad nakarating, sapagkat ang tanging daan papasok ay nabarahan ng mga nabuwal na puno.

Ngunit hindi kami naghintay. Sa unang umaga, kusang nagtipon ang mga kalalakihan upang lagariin at alisin ang mga sanga. Ang mga kababaihan ay nagsama-sama sa isang kusina, pinagsanib ang natitirang bigas at de-latang pagkain, at naghanda para sa buong purok. Ang mga kabataan ang inatasang magdala ng tubig sa mga matatanda at maysakit.

Walang nag-utos. Walang nakasulat na listahan ng gawain. Nakita ng bawat isa ang kailangang gawin, at ginawa niya ito.

Sinasabi ng ilan na naglalaho na ang bayanihan sa panahon ngayon, at napalitan na ito ng pagkakanya-kanya. Sa aming karanasan, hindi ito naglaho. Natutulog lamang ito hanggang sa may pumukaw.

  1. Which statement best expresses the main idea of the passage?

    1. A. Jeepneys should be preserved because of their cultural and historical importance.
    2. B. Older jeepneys are more dangerous to passengers than most commuters realize.
    3. C. Drivers should be given ownership of the vehicles they currently rent.
    4. D. Modernizing the fleet is justified, but the burden of paying for it is being misassigned.

    Answer: D. Modernizing the fleet is justified, but the burden of paying for it is being misassigned.

    The passage grants the case for replacement outright, then argues that the real question is who absorbs the cost. The cultural point and the safety point are each only one supporting element, not the main idea.

  2. According to the passage, how do most jeepney drivers relate to the vehicles they operate?

    1. A. They rent them daily and keep the fares left after a fixed payment.
    2. B. They own them outright and pay off a loan monthly.
    3. C. They lease them under a long-term government scheme.
    4. D. They share ownership with other drivers on the same route.

    Answer: A. They rent them daily and keep the fares left after a fixed payment.

    The third paragraph states that drivers rent daily, surrender a fixed sum to the operator, and keep whatever fares remain.

  3. The author mentions that financing is "calculated against a stable monthly salary" mainly to suggest that

    1. A. drivers earn less than workers in other industries
    2. B. the repayment terms assume an income pattern drivers do not have
    3. C. banks are unwilling to lend to transport workers
    4. D. operators should be required to raise driver wages

    Answer: B. the repayment terms assume an income pattern drivers do not have

    The sentence follows a description of daily, variable earnings and concludes that such a scheme "does not describe their situation at all," pointing to a mismatch in assumptions rather than to lender bias.

  4. As used in the final paragraph, "relocated" most nearly means

    1. A. physically moved to another site
    2. B. reduced in overall scale
    3. C. delayed until a later date
    4. D. shifted onto a different group

    Answer: D. shifted onto a different group

    The passage says the problem is relocated "onto the people least able to carry it," so the word describes a transfer of burden between groups, not a change of place.

  5. The author's attitude toward fleet modernization is best described as

    1. A. opposed to it on cultural grounds
    2. B. indifferent to the outcome of the debate
    3. C. supportive of the goal but critical of how the cost is distributed
    4. D. confident that drivers will adapt without assistance

    Answer: C. supportive of the goal but critical of how the cost is distributed

    The author explicitly concedes that the fleet should change and reserves criticism for the distribution of cost.

  6. According to the passage, what gives a healthy reef its color?

    1. A. The zooxanthellae living in the coral's tissues
    2. B. Pigments in the limestone skeleton
    3. C. Minerals absorbed from warm seawater
    4. D. Sugars produced by the coral animal

    Answer: A. The zooxanthellae living in the coral's tissues

    The first paragraph states that the algae supply most of the coral's energy and also give the reef its color.

  7. The passage as a whole is primarily concerned with

    1. A. proving that all bleached corals eventually die
    2. B. explaining what bleaching is and why its increasing frequency matters
    3. C. comparing coral reefs with other marine ecosystems
    4. D. describing how the coral skeleton is constructed

    Answer: B. explaining what bleaching is and why its increasing frequency matters

    The passage defines the partnership, explains the mechanism of bleaching, and closes on the shortening interval between heat events.

  8. The passage suggests that a reef struck by severe bleaching in two consecutive years would most likely

    1. A. recover fully once cooler water returns
    2. B. develop resistance to future temperature increases
    3. C. fare worse than one struck once, because recovery time was insufficient
    4. D. lose its skeleton before losing its algae

    Answer: C. fare worse than one struck once, because recovery time was insufficient

    The final paragraph identifies the shortening gap between events as the central difficulty, since recovery is slow and requires time before the next event.

  9. As used in the last paragraph, "interval" most nearly means

    1. A. the severity of each heat event
    2. B. the depth at which corals grow
    3. C. the range of species affected
    4. D. the time between successive events

    Answer: D. the time between successive events

    The sentence contrasts interval with intensity, and the following sentences describe the shortening gap between hot years.

  10. Which best describes the function of the third paragraph?

    1. A. It introduces evidence that contradicts the first paragraph.
    2. B. It qualifies the preceding account by noting that bleaching is survivable under certain conditions.
    3. C. It restates the definition of bleaching in simpler terms.
    4. D. It proposes a method for cooling reef water.

    Answer: B. It qualifies the preceding account by noting that bleaching is survivable under certain conditions.

    The paragraph opens with "A bleached coral is not yet a dead coral," adding a condition to the account of expulsion given before it.

  11. What does Delia's mother bring to the terminal?

    1. A. A letter she wrote the night before
    2. B. Money for the fare to Manila
    3. C. A photograph of Delia's grandmother
    4. D. Two bags of food, still warm

    Answer: D. Two bags of food, still warm

    The second paragraph states she arrived with two plastic bags of food, still warm.

  12. The mother's remark that "It took me eleven minutes" most strongly implies that she

    1. A. is warning Delia not to take too long
    2. B. has been timing how long Delia has kept her waiting
    3. C. once had a similar conversation with her own mother and already understands Delia's position
    4. D. doubts that Delia has thought the decision through

    Answer: C. once had a similar conversation with her own mother and already understands Delia's position

    She says she told her own mother the same thing and was allowed to finish, then invites Delia to speak without interruption. The detail signals recognition, not reproach.

  13. Why had Delia planned to speak at the terminal specifically?

    1. A. She would have less time to be questioned before departure.
    2. B. She wanted witnesses present for the conversation.
    3. C. She expected the noise to soften the effect of her words.
    4. D. She had not decided until she reached the terminal.

    Answer: C. She expected the noise to soften the effect of her words.

    The opening paragraph explains that the noise would carry half the sentence away and force her mother to lean in, which would soften what followed.

  14. The mood of the passage is best described as

    1. A. tender and quietly tense
    2. B. bitter and accusing
    3. C. cheerful and light
    4. D. detached and clinical

    Answer: A. tender and quietly tense

    The care shown in the food and the mother's composure sit alongside the unspoken announcement, producing warmth held under tension.

  15. The final sentence is most significant because it shows that

    1. A. Delia has changed her mind about leaving
    2. B. Delia has forgotten why she came to the terminal
    3. C. her mother's response has undone the preparation Delia relied on
    4. D. the bus has arrived earlier than expected

    Answer: C. her mother's response has undone the preparation Delia relied on

    Delia rehearsed for three weeks in order to manage the conversation. Being met with understanding rather than resistance removes the pressure the speech was built against.

  16. According to the passage, trees reduce district temperature in two ways. One is by blocking radiation. What is the other?

    1. A. They absorb carbon dioxide from the surrounding air.
    2. B. They release water that carries heat away as it evaporates.
    3. C. They reflect sunlight back through their leaves.
    4. D. They lower the density of buildings around them.

    Answer: B. They release water that carries heat away as it evaporates.

    The first paragraph states that water released through the leaves carries heat away as it evaporates.

  17. The passage reports that raising canopy cover from ten to thirty percent lowers peak afternoon temperature by roughly

    1. A. half a degree
    2. B. two to three degrees
    3. C. five degrees
    4. D. ten degrees

    Answer: B. two to three degrees

    The second paragraph gives two to three degrees for peak afternoon temperature. The five-degree figure in the opening refers to differences between neighborhoods.

  18. The passage implies that the nighttime cooling effect of trees deserves attention because

    1. A. it is larger than the daytime effect
    2. B. sustained overnight heat is what drives heat-related hospital admissions
    3. C. trees release more water at night than during the day
    4. D. most residents are outdoors after sunset

    Answer: B. sustained overnight heat is what drives heat-related hospital admissions

    The passage calls the nighttime effect smaller but more consequential for health, citing overnight heat as the driver of admissions.

  19. Which statement best captures the passage's overall point?

    1. A. Urban heat is unevenly distributed, and the districts most exposed to it have the least tree cover.
    2. B. Concrete and asphalt should be replaced with more reflective materials.
    3. C. Air conditioning is the most effective response to urban heat.
    4. D. Tree planting is more difficult in tropical cities than in temperate ones.

    Answer: A. Urban heat is unevenly distributed, and the districts most exposed to it have the least tree cover.

    The passage explains the mechanism, quantifies the benefit, then shows canopy cover tracks income, concluding that the most exposed residents have the least shade.

  20. Which reason does the passage give for the lower canopy cover in newer settlements?

    1. A. They were built at higher density with no space reserved for planting.
    2. B. Residents there prefer open space to shade.
    3. C. The local soil cannot support mature trees.
    4. D. Their trees were removed during road widening.

    Answer: A. They were built at higher density with no space reserved for planting.

    The third paragraph attributes it to higher density and narrow roads with no space set aside for planting.

  21. The main claim of the passage is that

    1. A. oral tradition is a more reliable source than written administrative records
    2. B. administrative documents should be discarded in favor of genealogy
    3. C. both kinds of evidence are shaped by the purposes behind them, so each should be judged by what it was made to record
    4. D. the history of the region cannot be reconstructed with any confidence

    Answer: C. both kinds of evidence are shaped by the purposes behind them, so each should be judged by what it was made to record

    The closing sentences state that both bear the marks of the interests that produced them and that the useful question is what each was made for.

  22. According to the passage, when does a village typically appear in the written archive?

    1. A. When it is first settled
    2. B. When its population reaches a recorded threshold
    3. C. When its oral traditions are transcribed
    4. D. When it becomes a fiscal or legal matter requiring attention

    Answer: D. When it becomes a fiscal or legal matter requiring attention

    The first paragraph says a village appears on the day it becomes a fiscal problem and vanishes once the matter is settled.

  23. The author acknowledges that oral tradition is "revised in transmission" chiefly in order to

    1. A. argue that oral evidence should be used only as a last resort
    2. B. concede a genuine weakness before showing that written sources share it
    3. C. demonstrate that memory is unreliable over long periods
    4. D. explain why genealogies vary between families

    Answer: B. concede a genuine weakness before showing that written sources share it

    The concession is immediately followed by "But written sources are revised too," which turns the objection into support for the author's point.

  24. As used in the second paragraph, "narrower" most nearly means

    1. A. more limited in scope
    2. B. more biased
    3. C. more difficult to read
    4. D. more recent in origin

    Answer: A. more limited in scope

    The point is that administration is a smaller subject than the past as a whole, which is a matter of scope.

  25. Based on the passage, a historian studying why a settlement relocated would be best advised to

    1. A. rely on tribute assessments, since they were audited
    2. B. avoid both source types as irreparably biased
    3. C. assume the relocation was ordered by an administrator
    4. D. consult oral tradition, which the passage identifies as covering such matters

    Answer: D. consult oral tradition, which the passage identifies as covering such matters

    The third paragraph lists the reasons a settlement moved among the things oral tradition preserves, whereas the archive records only fiscal and legal matters.

  26. According to the passage, what happens in the hippocampus during deep sleep?

    1. A. It shuts down while the cortex remains active.
    2. B. It erases memories judged unimportant.
    3. C. It replays sequences from the day at accelerated speed.
    4. D. It produces the compounds needed for physical repair.

    Answer: C. It replays sequences from the day at accelerated speed.

    The first paragraph states that the hippocampus replays sequences of daytime activity at accelerated speed and the cortex receives them.

  27. The passage is chiefly concerned with arguing that

    1. A. the hippocampus is more important to memory than the cortex
    2. B. sleep is an active stage of learning rather than a pause between periods of it
    3. C. emotional memories are always retained better than neutral ones
    4. D. students need more total study hours than they usually attempt

    Answer: B. sleep is an active stage of learning rather than a pause between periods of it

    The passage opens by rejecting the view of sleep as a pause and closes by calling it one of the periods of learning.

  28. Based on the passage, why is an all-night study session before an exam a poor strategy?

    1. A. It leaves no sleep in which consolidation could take place.
    2. B. It reduces the total number of hours spent studying.
    3. C. It encodes memories in the cortex instead of the hippocampus.
    4. D. It causes the brain to treat the material as unimportant.

    Answer: A. It leaves no sleep in which consolidation could take place.

    The third paragraph states that such a night allows almost no consolidation, because consolidation requires the sleep that was spent avoiding it.

  29. The passage says the sorting of memories during sleep favors material that

    1. A. was encoded earliest in the day
    2. B. was repeated aloud while studying
    3. C. is unrelated to existing knowledge
    4. D. the brain has reason to treat as important

    Answer: D. the brain has reason to treat as important

    The second paragraph says the sorting favors material the brain has been given reason to treat as important, by emotional weight or by a signal that it will be needed again.

  30. As used in the first paragraph, "untenable" most nearly means

    1. A. impossible to defend
    2. B. widely accepted
    3. C. difficult to measure
    4. D. recently proposed

    Answer: A. impossible to defend

    The neural recordings undermine the old description of sleep, so the position can no longer be held or defended.

  31. Ano ang pangunahing diwa ng teksto?

    1. A. Mabagal ang pagtugon ng pamahalaan sa mga sakuna sa liblib na barangay.
    2. B. Hindi naglaho ang bayanihan; lumilitaw lamang ito kapag may pangangailangan.
    3. C. Higit na mahalaga ang tubig kaysa kuryente sa panahon ng bagyo.
    4. D. Dapat maghanda ang bawat pamilya ng sariling pagkain bago dumating ang bagyo.

    Answer: B. Hindi naglaho ang bayanihan; lumilitaw lamang ito kapag may pangangailangan.

    Nagtatapos ang teksto sa tuwirang pagtutol sa paniwalang naglaho na ang bayanihan, at ang buong salaysay ay patunay nito. Ang pagkaantala ng tulong ay detalye lamang na naghahanda sa puntong ito.

  32. Batay sa teksto, bakit hindi kaagad nakarating ang tulong mula sa labas?

    1. A. Walang kuryente sa buong barangay.
    2. B. Hindi umabot ang balita sa kalapit na bayan.
    3. C. Nabarahan ng mga nabuwal na puno ang tanging daan papasok.
    4. D. Tumanggi ang mga residente na tumanggap ng tulong.

    Answer: C. Nabarahan ng mga nabuwal na puno ang tanging daan papasok.

    Nakasaad sa unang talata na nabarahan ng mga nabuwal na puno ang tanging daan papasok.

  33. Ano ang ipinahihiwatig ng mga pangungusap na "Walang nag-utos. Walang nakasulat na listahan ng gawain."?

    1. A. Naging magulo at hindi mabisa ang pagtulong ng mga residente.
    2. B. Kusang-loob ang pagkilos at hindi kinailangan ng utos mula sa itaas.
    3. C. Wala nang natitirang pinuno sa barangay pagkatapos ng bagyo.
    4. D. Hindi alam ng mga residente ang wastong paraan ng pagtugon sa sakuna.

    Answer: B. Kusang-loob ang pagkilos at hindi kinailangan ng utos mula sa itaas.

    Sinusundan ito ng pahayag na nakita ng bawat isa ang kailangang gawin at ginawa niya ito, na nagbibigay-diin sa kusang-loob na pagkilos, hindi sa kaguluhan o kawalan ng alam.

  34. Sa huling talata, ano ang pinakamalapit na kahulugan ng "pagkakanya-kanya"?

    1. A. Pag-iisip lamang sa sariling kapakanan
    2. B. Pagsunod sa nakatataas
    3. C. Pagtutulungan ng magkakapitbahay
    4. D. Pag-aalinlangan sa pamahalaan

    Answer: A. Pag-iisip lamang sa sariling kapakanan

    Itinapat ito sa bayanihan bilang kasalungat, kaya tumutukoy ito sa paghihiwalay at pagtuon sa sariling kapakanan lamang.

  35. Alin ang pinakamahusay na paglalarawan sa layunin ng may-akda?

    1. A. Manawagan ng mas mabilis na tulong mula sa pamahalaan
    2. B. Magbigay ng tagubilin sa paghahanda para sa bagyo
    3. C. Salungatin ang paniwalang wala nang bayanihan sa kasalukuyan
    4. D. Ilarawan ang pinsalang iniwan ng bagyo sa barangay

    Answer: C. Salungatin ang paniwalang wala nang bayanihan sa kasalukuyan

    Ginamit ng may-akda ang salaysay bilang ebidensya laban sa isang tiyak na paniwala, na tahasang binanggit sa huling talata.

Science Science, 50 questions

Choose the best answer for each item.

  1. Which organelle is the main site of aerobic respiration in a eukaryotic cell?

    1. A. Ribosome
    2. B. Golgi apparatus
    3. C. Lysosome
    4. D. Mitochondrion

    Answer: D. Mitochondrion

    The mitochondrion carries out the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation, producing most of the cell's ATP in the presence of oxygen.

  2. Which molecule delivers amino acids to the ribosome during translation?

    1. A. mRNA
    2. B. tRNA
    3. C. rRNA
    4. D. DNA polymerase

    Answer: B. tRNA

    Transfer RNA carries a specific amino acid and pairs its anticodon with the matching mRNA codon at the ribosome.

  3. The loss of water vapor from a plant through the stomata is called

    1. A. translocation
    2. B. guttation
    3. C. respiration
    4. D. transpiration

    Answer: D. transpiration

    Transpiration is evaporative water loss through leaf stomata, and it drives the upward pull of water in the xylem.

  4. Which vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart?

    1. A. Pulmonary artery
    2. B. Pulmonary vein
    3. C. Aorta
    4. D. Superior vena cava

    Answer: B. Pulmonary vein

    The pulmonary vein is the exception to the rule that veins carry deoxygenated blood, returning oxygen-rich blood to the left atrium.

  5. In a cross between two heterozygous individuals (Aa × Aa), what is the expected genotypic ratio of the offspring?

    1. A. 1 : 1
    2. B. 3 : 1
    3. C. 1 : 2 : 1
    4. D. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

    Answer: C. 1 : 2 : 1

    The Punnett square gives AA, Aa, Aa, and aa, which is 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa. The 3 : 1 ratio is the phenotypic ratio for complete dominance.

  6. A homozygous tall pea plant (TT) is crossed with a homozygous short plant (tt). What fraction of the F1 generation will be tall, given that T is completely dominant?

    1. A. All of them
    2. B. None
    3. C. One half
    4. D. Three quarters

    Answer: A. All of them

    Every offspring receives T from one parent and t from the other, so all are Tt and all express the dominant tall phenotype.

  7. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

    1. A. Producing bile
    2. B. Secreting insulin
    3. C. Storing glycogen
    4. D. Detoxifying substances in the blood

    Answer: B. Secreting insulin

    Insulin is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets, not the liver, although the liver is a major target of insulin's action.

  8. Which enzyme in saliva begins the digestion of starch?

    1. A. Pepsin
    2. B. Lipase
    3. C. Amylase
    4. D. Trypsin

    Answer: C. Amylase

    Salivary amylase hydrolyzes starch into shorter sugar chains. Pepsin acts on protein, and lipase acts on fat.

  9. Most absorption of digested nutrients occurs in the

    1. A. small intestine
    2. B. stomach
    3. C. large intestine
    4. D. esophagus

    Answer: A. small intestine

    The villi and microvilli of the small intestine give it an enormous surface area for absorption.

  10. The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a region of lower solute concentration to one of higher solute concentration is called

    1. A. active transport
    2. B. phagocytosis
    3. C. filtration
    4. D. osmosis

    Answer: D. osmosis

    Osmosis is the passive diffusion of water down its own concentration gradient, which means toward the more concentrated solute side.

  11. Which of the following is an autotroph?

    1. A. Mushroom
    2. B. Earthworm
    3. C. Green algae
    4. D. Tilapia

    Answer: C. Green algae

    Autotrophs make their own organic compounds. Green algae photosynthesize, whereas fungi are decomposers and the others are consumers.

  12. Atmospheric nitrogen is converted into a form usable by plants mainly through the action of

    1. A. fungal spores
    2. B. sunlight on leaf surfaces
    3. C. certain bacteria
    4. D. earthworms in the soil

    Answer: C. certain bacteria

    Nitrogen-fixing bacteria, including Rhizobium in legume root nodules, reduce atmospheric N₂ into ammonia that plants can assimilate.

  13. How many chromosomes are present in a normal human gamete?

    1. A. 46
    2. B. 23
    3. C. 22
    4. D. 92

    Answer: B. 23

    Gametes are haploid, carrying one set of 23 chromosomes. Fertilization restores the diploid number of 46.

  14. During which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes align along the equator of the cell?

    1. A. Prophase
    2. B. Metaphase
    3. C. Anaphase
    4. D. Telophase

    Answer: B. Metaphase

    In metaphase the chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate before the sister chromatids separate in anaphase.

  15. The identity of a chemical element is determined by its number of

    1. A. neutrons
    2. B. electrons
    3. C. valence shells
    4. D. protons

    Answer: D. protons

    The proton count is the atomic number, which defines the element. Changing neutrons gives an isotope; changing electrons gives an ion.

  16. A solution with a pH of 3 is best described as

    1. A. acidic
    2. B. strongly basic
    3. C. neutral
    4. D. weakly basic

    Answer: A. acidic

    On the pH scale, values below 7 are acidic. A pH of 3 has a hydrogen ion concentration ten thousand times that of neutral water.

  17. What type of bond holds sodium chloride together?

    1. A. Nonpolar covalent bond
    2. B. Hydrogen bond
    3. C. Ionic bond
    4. D. Metallic bond

    Answer: C. Ionic bond

    Sodium transfers an electron to chlorine, producing Na⁺ and Cl⁻ ions held together by electrostatic attraction.

  18. Approximately how many particles are in one mole of a substance?

    1. A. 3.14 × 10⁸
    2. B. 6.02 × 10²³
    3. C. 1.60 × 10⁻¹⁹
    4. D. 9.11 × 10⁻³¹

    Answer: B. 6.02 × 10²³

    This is Avogadro's number. The other values are the speed of light order of magnitude, the elementary charge, and the electron mass.

  19. In the balanced equation for the formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen gas, what is the coefficient of H₂? ___ H₂ + ___ O₂ → ___ H₂O

    1. A. 1
    2. B. 3
    3. C. 2
    4. D. 4

    Answer: C. 2

    The balanced equation is 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O, which gives four hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms on each side.

  20. Noble gases are chemically unreactive mainly because they have

    1. A. a complete outermost electron shell
    2. B. very large atomic radii
    3. C. no neutrons in the nucleus
    4. D. unusually high electronegativity

    Answer: A. a complete outermost electron shell

    A full valence shell leaves no strong tendency to gain, lose, or share electrons, so noble gases rarely form bonds.

  21. Which of the following is a physical change?

    1. A. Ice melting into liquid water
    2. B. Iron rusting in humid air
    3. C. Wood burning in a stove
    4. D. Milk turning sour

    Answer: A. Ice melting into liquid water

    Melting changes state but not chemical identity. The other three form new substances and are chemical changes.

  22. Two isotopes of the same element differ in their number of

    1. A. protons
    2. B. electrons
    3. C. valence electrons
    4. D. neutrons

    Answer: D. neutrons

    Isotopes share the same proton number but have different neutron numbers, giving different mass numbers.

  23. As you move down a group in the periodic table, atomic radius generally

    1. A. decreases
    2. B. stays the same
    3. C. increases then decreases sharply
    4. D. increases

    Answer: D. increases

    Each period down adds a new electron shell, placing the outermost electrons farther from the nucleus.

  24. What is the molar mass of CO₂? Use C = 12 g/mol and O = 16 g/mol.

    1. A. 28 g/mol
    2. B. 44 g/mol
    3. C. 32 g/mol
    4. D. 56 g/mol

    Answer: B. 44 g/mol

    12 + 2(16) = 12 + 32 = 44 g/mol.

  25. A catalyst speeds up a chemical reaction by

    1. A. lowering the activation energy required
    2. B. increasing the temperature of the mixture
    3. C. adding energy to the products
    4. D. being consumed as a reactant

    Answer: A. lowering the activation energy required

    A catalyst provides an alternative pathway with lower activation energy and emerges from the reaction chemically unchanged.

  26. In a solution of salt dissolved in water, water is the

    1. A. solute
    2. B. precipitate
    3. C. solvent
    4. D. suspension

    Answer: C. solvent

    The solvent is the dissolving medium, present in the greater amount. The salt being dissolved is the solute.

  27. In a redox reaction, oxidation is defined as the

    1. A. gain of electrons
    2. B. loss of electrons
    3. C. gain of protons
    4. D. loss of neutrons

    Answer: B. loss of electrons

    Oxidation is loss and reduction is gain of electrons. The presence of oxygen is not required for a species to be oxidized.

  28. What is the SI unit of force?

    1. A. Joule
    2. B. Watt
    3. C. Pascal
    4. D. Newton

    Answer: D. Newton

    One newton is the force that gives a one-kilogram mass an acceleration of one meter per second squared. The joule measures energy, the watt power, and the pascal pressure.

  29. A rocket moves forward as hot gas is expelled backward. This is best explained by

    1. A. Newton's first law
    2. B. Newton's third law
    3. C. Newton's second law
    4. D. the law of conservation of mass

    Answer: B. Newton's third law

    For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. The backward thrust on the gas produces a forward force on the rocket.

  30. Passengers lurch forward when a moving jeepney brakes suddenly. This is due to

    1. A. inertia
    2. B. friction between the seats and the passengers
    3. C. centripetal force
    4. D. gravitational attraction

    Answer: A. inertia

    A body in motion tends to stay in motion. The vehicle decelerates but the passengers continue moving forward until a force stops them.

  31. Which statement correctly distinguishes velocity from speed?

    1. A. Velocity is always larger than speed.
    2. B. Speed applies only to objects in free fall.
    3. C. Velocity specifies direction, while speed does not.
    4. D. Speed is measured in m/s and velocity in m/s².

    Answer: C. Velocity specifies direction, while speed does not.

    Speed is a scalar, giving magnitude only. Velocity is a vector, giving both magnitude and direction. Both use m/s.

  32. Near the surface of the Earth, the acceleration due to gravity is approximately

    1. A. 9.8 m/s²
    2. B. 1.6 m/s²
    3. C. 98 m/s²
    4. D. 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s²

    Answer: A. 9.8 m/s²

    The standard value is about 9.8 m/s². The 1.6 m/s² figure is roughly the Moon's surface gravity.

  33. A student pushes a crate with a constant force of 25 N over a distance of 4 m in the direction of the force. How much work is done?

    1. A. 6.25 J
    2. B. 29 J
    3. C. 100 J
    4. D. 100 N

    Answer: C. 100 J

    Work equals force times displacement along the force: 25 N × 4 m = 100 J.

  34. What net force is required to give a 2 kg object an acceleration of 3 m/s²?

    1. A. 6 N
    2. B. 0.67 N
    3. C. 1.5 N
    4. D. 5 N

    Answer: A. 6 N

    By Newton's second law, F = ma = 2 kg × 3 m/s² = 6 N.

  35. In a battery-powered flashlight, the main sequence of energy transformation is

    1. A. light → electrical → chemical
    2. B. electrical → chemical → sound
    3. C. chemical → electrical → light
    4. D. nuclear → electrical → light

    Answer: C. chemical → electrical → light

    Stored chemical energy in the battery becomes electrical energy in the circuit, which the bulb converts to light and heat.

  36. The number of complete wave cycles passing a point per second is the wave's

    1. A. amplitude
    2. B. frequency
    3. C. wavelength
    4. D. period

    Answer: B. frequency

    Frequency is cycles per second, measured in hertz. The period is its reciprocal, the time for one cycle.

  37. A straw appears bent where it enters a glass of water. This is caused by

    1. A. refraction
    2. B. reflection
    3. C. diffraction
    4. D. polarization

    Answer: A. refraction

    Light changes speed and bends as it crosses between media of different optical density, which shifts the apparent position of the submerged part.

  38. Which statement about a vacuum is correct?

    1. A. Both sound and light travel through it.
    2. B. Light travels through it, but sound cannot.
    3. C. Sound travels through it, but light cannot.
    4. D. Neither sound nor light can travel through it.

    Answer: B. Light travels through it, but sound cannot.

    Sound is a mechanical wave and needs a material medium. Light is an electromagnetic wave and propagates through empty space.

  39. A potential difference of 12 V is applied across a 4 Ω resistor. What current flows through it?

    1. A. 3 A
    2. B. 0.33 A
    3. C. 16 A
    4. D. 48 A

    Answer: A. 3 A

    By Ohm's law, I = V / R = 12 V ÷ 4 Ω = 3 A.

  40. A converging (convex) lens is used to correct which vision defect?

    1. A. Myopia, or nearsightedness
    2. B. Color blindness
    3. C. Night blindness
    4. D. Hyperopia, or farsightedness

    Answer: D. Hyperopia, or farsightedness

    In hyperopia the eye focuses light behind the retina, so a converging lens is used to bring the focal point forward. Myopia requires a diverging lens.

  41. Which layer of the Earth consists mainly of liquid iron and nickel?

    1. A. Crust
    2. B. Mantle
    3. C. Inner core
    4. D. Outer core

    Answer: D. Outer core

    The outer core is molten iron and nickel, and its motion generates the Earth's magnetic field. The inner core is solid despite being hotter, because of immense pressure.

  42. A boundary where two tectonic plates move apart, allowing magma to rise and form new crust, is called

    1. A. a divergent boundary
    2. B. a convergent boundary
    3. C. a transform boundary
    4. D. a subduction zone

    Answer: A. a divergent boundary

    Divergent boundaries, such as mid-ocean ridges, produce new crust as plates separate. Convergent boundaries destroy crust through subduction.

  43. The seasons on Earth are caused primarily by

    1. A. the tilt of the Earth's axis relative to its orbital plane
    2. B. changes in the Earth's distance from the Sun
    3. C. variations in the Sun's energy output
    4. D. the rotation of the Earth on its axis

    Answer: A. the tilt of the Earth's axis relative to its orbital plane

    The roughly 23.5-degree axial tilt changes the angle and duration of sunlight through the year. Orbital distance varies too little to explain the effect, and the hemispheres have opposite seasons.

  44. A rock formed by the cooling and solidification of magma is classified as

    1. A. sedimentary
    2. B. metamorphic
    3. C. clastic
    4. D. igneous

    Answer: D. igneous

    Igneous rock forms from molten material. Sedimentary rock forms from compacted sediment, and metamorphic rock from heat and pressure applied to existing rock.

  45. Which greenhouse gas is released in the greatest quantity by the burning of fossil fuels?

    1. A. Ozone
    2. B. Nitrogen
    3. C. Carbon dioxide
    4. D. Helium

    Answer: C. Carbon dioxide

    Combustion of carbon-based fuels releases CO₂. Nitrogen and helium are not greenhouse gases, and ozone comes mainly from other processes.

  46. The ozone layer that absorbs most incoming ultraviolet radiation is found in the

    1. A. troposphere
    2. B. mesosphere
    3. C. stratosphere
    4. D. thermosphere

    Answer: C. stratosphere

    Ozone is concentrated in the lower stratosphere, and the heat released by UV absorption there is why stratospheric temperature rises with altitude.

  47. When the Earth lies between the Sun and the Moon, an observer on Earth sees

    1. A. a new moon
    2. B. a full moon
    3. C. a first quarter moon
    4. D. a waning crescent

    Answer: B. a full moon

    With the Earth in the middle, the Moon's sunlit face is turned toward us, giving a full moon. A new moon occurs when the Moon is between the Earth and the Sun.

  48. Which instrument records the ground motion produced by an earthquake?

    1. A. Barometer
    2. B. Seismograph
    3. C. Anemometer
    4. D. Hygrometer

    Answer: B. Seismograph

    A seismograph traces seismic waves. A barometer measures air pressure, an anemometer wind speed, and a hygrometer humidity.

  49. The Philippines experiences frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions because it lies along the

    1. A. Mid-Atlantic Ridge
    2. B. East African Rift
    3. C. Great Barrier Shelf
    4. D. Pacific Ring of Fire

    Answer: D. Pacific Ring of Fire

    The Ring of Fire is a belt of subduction zones and volcanic arcs around the Pacific basin, and the Philippine archipelago sits within it.

  50. In the water cycle, the change of water vapor into liquid droplets that form clouds is called

    1. A. evaporation
    2. B. precipitation
    3. C. infiltration
    4. D. condensation

    Answer: D. condensation

    Condensation is the gas-to-liquid transition. Precipitation is the subsequent fall of that water as rain, and infiltration is its entry into the soil.

Mathematics Mathematics, 50 questions

Solve each item and choose the best answer. Calculators are not required.

  1. Solve for x: 3(x − 4) = 2x + 5

    1. A. x = 7
    2. B. x = 11
    3. C. x = 17
    4. D. x = 19

    Answer: C. x = 17

    Expand to 3x − 12 = 2x + 5, subtract 2x to get x − 12 = 5, then add 12 to get x = 17.

  2. Simplify: (2x²y)³

    1. A. 8x⁶y³
    2. B. 6x⁶y³
    3. C. 8x⁵y³
    4. D. 2x⁶y³

    Answer: A. 8x⁶y³

    Raise each factor to the third power: 2³ = 8, (x²)³ = x⁶, and y³ = y³.

  3. What is 15% of 240?

    1. A. 16
    2. B. 36
    3. C. 24
    4. D. 48

    Answer: B. 36

    0.15 × 240 = 36. Alternatively, 10% is 24 and 5% is 12, and 24 + 12 = 36.

  4. A shirt sells for ₱480 after a 20% discount. What was its original price?

    1. A. ₱500
    2. B. ₱576
    3. C. ₱640
    4. D. ₱600

    Answer: D. ₱600

    The sale price is 80% of the original, so the original is 480 ÷ 0.80 = 600. Adding 20% to 480 gives 576, which is the common trap.

  5. What is the slope of the line passing through (2, −3) and (6, 5)?

    1. A. 1/2
    2. B. 2
    3. C. −2
    4. D. 4

    Answer: B. 2

    Slope = (5 − (−3)) / (6 − 2) = 8 / 4 = 2.

  6. What are the roots of x² − 5x + 6 = 0?

    1. A. 1 and 6
    2. B. 2 and 3
    3. C. −2 and −3
    4. D. −1 and −6

    Answer: B. 2 and 3

    Factor as (x − 2)(x − 3) = 0. The roots must multiply to 6 and add to 5.

  7. If f(x) = 2x² − 3x + 1, what is f(−2)?

    1. A. 3
    2. B. −1
    3. C. 11
    4. D. 15

    Answer: D. 15

    f(−2) = 2(4) − 3(−2) + 1 = 8 + 6 + 1 = 15.

  8. The average of five numbers is 18. If one of them, 22, is removed, what is the average of the remaining four?

    1. A. 16
    2. B. 18
    3. C. 19
    4. D. 17

    Answer: D. 17

    The total is 5 × 18 = 90. Removing 22 leaves 68, and 68 ÷ 4 = 17.

  9. A circle has a circumference of 12π. What is its area?

    1. A. 36π
    2. B.
    3. C. 12π
    4. D. 144π

    Answer: A. 36π

    From C = 2πr, 12π = 2πr gives r = 6. Then A = πr² = 36π.

  10. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. What is the measure of the largest angle?

    1. A. 90°
    2. B. 36°
    3. C. 54°
    4. D. 72°

    Answer: A. 90°

    The parts total 10, so each part is 180° ÷ 10 = 18°. The largest angle is 5 × 18° = 90°.

  11. A right triangle has legs measuring 9 cm and 12 cm. What is the length of its hypotenuse?

    1. A. 13 cm
    2. B. 18 cm
    3. C. 15 cm
    4. D. 21 cm

    Answer: C. 15 cm

    9² + 12² = 81 + 144 = 225, and √225 = 15. This is a 3-4-5 triangle scaled by 3.

  12. What is the value of sin 30°?

    1. A. 1/2
    2. B. √2/2
    3. C. √3/2
    4. D. 1

    Answer: A. 1/2

    In a 30-60-90 triangle the side opposite 30° is half the hypotenuse, so sin 30° = 1/2.

  13. A quantity is increased by 20% and the result is then decreased by 20%. Compared with the original, the final value is

    1. A. 4% smaller
    2. B. unchanged
    3. C. 4% larger
    4. D. 20% smaller

    Answer: A. 4% smaller

    Multiplying by 1.20 and then 0.80 gives 0.96 of the original, a 4% decrease. The two percentages are taken from different bases, so they do not cancel.

  14. Two fair six-sided dice are rolled. What is the probability that the sum of the faces is 7?

    1. A. 1/12
    2. B. 1/6
    3. C. 7/36
    4. D. 1/3

    Answer: B. 1/6

    There are 6 favorable outcomes out of 36 equally likely pairs, and 6/36 = 1/6.

  15. What is the 20th term of the arithmetic sequence 7, 11, 15, 19, ...?

    1. A. 76
    2. B. 79
    3. C. 87
    4. D. 83

    Answer: D. 83

    The common difference is 4, so aₙ = 7 + (n − 1)(4). For n = 20: 7 + 19(4) = 7 + 76 = 83.

  16. What is the 8th term of the geometric sequence 3, 6, 12, 24, ...?

    1. A. 192
    2. B. 768
    3. C. 384
    4. D. 1,536

    Answer: C. 384

    The common ratio is 2, so a₈ = 3 × 2⁷ = 3 × 128 = 384.

  17. Solve the system: 2x + y = 11 and x − y = 1

    1. A. x = 3, y = 5
    2. B. x = 5, y = 1
    3. C. x = 4, y = 3
    4. D. x = 2, y = 7

    Answer: C. x = 4, y = 3

    Adding the equations eliminates y: 3x = 12, so x = 4. Substituting gives y = 3.

  18. Simplify: √72

    1. A. 8√3
    2. B. 6√2
    3. C. 2√18
    4. D. 36√2

    Answer: B. 6√2

    72 = 36 × 2, so √72 = √36 · √2 = 6√2. The form 2√18 is equal in value but not fully simplified, since 18 still contains the square factor 9.

  19. Expand: (x + 3)(x − 3)

    1. A. x² + 9
    2. B. x² − 9
    3. C. x² + 6x − 9
    4. D. x² − 6x + 9

    Answer: B. x² − 9

    This is the difference of two squares: (a + b)(a − b) = a² − b², so the middle terms cancel.

  20. Factor completely: x² + 7x + 12

    1. A. (x + 3)(x + 4)
    2. B. (x + 2)(x + 6)
    3. C. (x + 1)(x + 12)
    4. D. (x − 3)(x − 4)

    Answer: A. (x + 3)(x + 4)

    The two numbers must multiply to 12 and add to 7, which are 3 and 4.

  21. Pipe A can fill a tank in 6 hours and pipe B can fill the same tank in 12 hours. Working together, how long will they take to fill it?

    1. A. 3 hours
    2. B. 8 hours
    3. C. 4 hours
    4. D. 9 hours

    Answer: C. 4 hours

    Their combined rate is 1/6 + 1/12 = 3/12 = 1/4 of the tank per hour, so the job takes 4 hours.

  22. A bus travels at a constant 60 km/h for 2.5 hours. How far does it go?

    1. A. 120 km
    2. B. 135 km
    3. C. 150 km
    4. D. 180 km

    Answer: C. 150 km

    Distance = rate × time = 60 × 2.5 = 150 km.

  23. A car leaves a terminal at 60 km/h. One hour later a second car leaves the same terminal along the same road at 80 km/h. How long after the second car departs will it overtake the first?

    1. A. 2 hours
    2. B. 3 hours
    3. C. 4 hours
    4. D. 5 hours

    Answer: B. 3 hours

    The first car has a 60 km head start, and the second gains 20 km/h. It closes the gap in 60 ÷ 20 = 3 hours.

  24. How much pure water must be added to 10 liters of a 30% acid solution to dilute it to 20% acid?

    1. A. 5 liters
    2. B. 2 liters
    3. C. 3 liters
    4. D. 10 liters

    Answer: A. 5 liters

    The acid stays at 3 L. If x liters of water are added, 3 = 0.20(10 + x), so 10 + x = 15 and x = 5.

  25. 40 is what percent of 160?

    1. A. 20%
    2. B. 25%
    3. C. 40%
    4. D. 400%

    Answer: B. 25%

    40 ÷ 160 = 0.25, which is 25%.

  26. What is the volume of a cube with an edge of 4 cm?

    1. A. 12 cm³
    2. B. 16 cm³
    3. C. 64 cm³
    4. D. 48 cm³

    Answer: C. 64 cm³

    V = s³ = 4³ = 64 cm³.

  27. What is the total surface area of a cube with an edge of 5 cm?

    1. A. 25 cm²
    2. B. 100 cm²
    3. C. 125 cm²
    4. D. 150 cm²

    Answer: D. 150 cm²

    A cube has 6 congruent square faces: 6 × 5² = 6 × 25 = 150 cm².

  28. What is the volume of a cylinder with radius 3 cm and height 10 cm?

    1. A. 90π cm³
    2. B. 30π cm³
    3. C. 60π cm³
    4. D. 900π cm³

    Answer: A. 90π cm³

    V = πr²h = π(9)(10) = 90π cm³.

  29. What is the median of the data set 4, 7, 9, 12, 15, 20?

    1. A. 9
    2. B. 11.17
    3. C. 12
    4. D. 10.5

    Answer: D. 10.5

    With an even count, the median is the mean of the two middle values: (9 + 12) ÷ 2 = 10.5.

  30. What is the mode of the data set 3, 5, 5, 7, 8, 8, 8, 9?

    1. A. 5
    2. B. 7
    3. C. 8
    4. D. 7.5

    Answer: C. 8

    The mode is the most frequent value. 8 appears three times, more often than any other.

  31. Solve for x: |2x − 5| = 9

    1. A. x = 7 only
    2. B. x = 7 or x = −2
    3. C. x = 2 or x = −7
    4. D. x = −2 only

    Answer: B. x = 7 or x = −2

    Either 2x − 5 = 9, giving x = 7, or 2x − 5 = −9, giving x = −2.

  32. Solve the inequality: 3x − 4 < 11

    1. A. x > 5
    2. B. x < 3
    3. C. x > −5
    4. D. x < 5

    Answer: D. x < 5

    Add 4 to get 3x < 15, then divide by the positive 3 to get x < 5. The direction of the inequality is unchanged.

  33. If a : b = 3 : 4 and b : c = 6 : 7, what is a : c?

    1. A. 9 : 14
    2. B. 3 : 7
    3. C. 18 : 7
    4. D. 2 : 3

    Answer: A. 9 : 14

    Scale the first ratio so b matches: a : b = 9 : 12 and b : c = 12 : 14. Then a : c = 9 : 14.

  34. How much simple interest is earned on ₱20,000 invested at 6% per year for 3 years?

    1. A. ₱1,200
    2. B. ₱2,400
    3. C. ₱3,600
    4. D. ₱23,600

    Answer: C. ₱3,600

    I = Prt = 20,000 × 0.06 × 3 = 3,600.

  35. ₱5,000 is invested at 10% compounded annually. What is its value after 2 years?

    1. A. ₱5,500
    2. B. ₱6,000
    3. C. ₱6,100
    4. D. ₱6,050

    Answer: D. ₱6,050

    A = 5,000(1.10)² = 5,000 × 1.21 = 6,050. Simple interest would give only 6,000.

  36. Six people at a meeting each shake hands once with every other person. How many handshakes occur in total?

    1. A. 15
    2. B. 12
    3. C. 21
    4. D. 30

    Answer: A. 15

    Order does not matter, so this is C(6, 2) = (6 × 5) ÷ 2 = 15.

  37. How many distinguishable arrangements can be made from the letters of the word LEVEL?

    1. A. 30
    2. B. 20
    3. C. 60
    4. D. 120

    Answer: A. 30

    There are 5 letters with L repeated twice and E repeated twice, so the count is 5! ÷ (2! × 2!) = 120 ÷ 4 = 30.

  38. A box contains 5 red marbles and 3 blue marbles. If one marble is drawn at random, what is the probability it is red?

    1. A. 3/8
    2. B. 5/8
    3. C. 5/3
    4. D. 1/2

    Answer: B. 5/8

    There are 5 favorable outcomes out of 8 marbles in total.

  39. What is the slope of any line perpendicular to y = 2x + 1?

    1. A. 2
    2. B. −1/2
    3. C. −2
    4. D. 1/2

    Answer: B. −1/2

    Perpendicular slopes are negative reciprocals, and the negative reciprocal of 2 is −1/2.

  40. What is the vertex of the parabola y = x² − 6x + 5?

    1. A. (−3, 32)
    2. B. (3, 5)
    3. C. (3, −4)
    4. D. (6, 5)

    Answer: C. (3, −4)

    The axis of symmetry is x = −b/(2a) = 6/2 = 3. Substituting gives y = 9 − 18 + 5 = −4.

  41. What is the domain of f(x) = 1 / (x − 3)?

    1. A. All real numbers
    2. B. All real numbers except 0
    3. C. All real numbers greater than 3
    4. D. All real numbers except 3

    Answer: D. All real numbers except 3

    The denominator vanishes when x = 3, so that value must be excluded. Every other real number is permitted.

  42. Evaluate: log₂ 32

    1. A. 4
    2. B. 5
    3. C. 16
    4. D. 6

    Answer: B. 5

    The question asks for the exponent that turns 2 into 32. Since 2⁵ = 32, the answer is 5.

  43. Solve for x: 2^(x + 1) = 32

    1. A. x = 4
    2. B. x = 3
    3. C. x = 5
    4. D. x = 16

    Answer: A. x = 4

    Write 32 as 2⁵. With matching bases, x + 1 = 5, so x = 4.

  44. What is the sum of the interior angles of a hexagon?

    1. A. 540°
    2. B. 720°
    3. C. 630°
    4. D. 1,080°

    Answer: B. 720°

    The sum is (n − 2) × 180° = (6 − 2) × 180° = 720°.

  45. What is the measure of each interior angle of a regular pentagon?

    1. A. 108°
    2. B. 72°
    3. C. 100°
    4. D. 120°

    Answer: A. 108°

    The interior angles total (5 − 2) × 180° = 540°, and 540° ÷ 5 = 108°. The 72° figure is the exterior angle.

  46. In a circle of radius 6 cm, what is the length of an arc subtending a central angle of 60°?

    1. A. π cm
    2. B. 6π cm
    3. C. 2π cm
    4. D. 12π cm

    Answer: C. 2π cm

    The arc is 60/360 = 1/6 of the circumference. The circumference is 12π, so the arc is 2π cm.

  47. Three consecutive integers have a sum of 51. What is the largest of the three?

    1. A. 16
    2. B. 17
    3. C. 19
    4. D. 18

    Answer: D. 18

    Let the integers be n − 1, n, and n + 1. Their sum is 3n = 51, so n = 17 and the largest is 18.

  48. Maria is three times as old as her son. In 12 years she will be twice as old as he is then. How old is Maria now?

    1. A. 12
    2. B. 24
    3. C. 48
    4. D. 36

    Answer: D. 36

    Let the son be s, so Maria is 3s. Then 3s + 12 = 2(s + 12), which gives 3s + 12 = 2s + 24 and s = 12. Maria is 36.

  49. Rationalize the denominator and simplify: 6 / √3

    1. A. 3√2
    2. B. 6√3
    3. C. √2
    4. D. 2√3

    Answer: D. 2√3

    Multiply numerator and denominator by √3: 6√3 / 3 = 2√3.

  50. A trapezoid has parallel sides measuring 8 cm and 12 cm, with a height of 5 cm. What is its area?

    1. A. 40 cm²
    2. B. 48 cm²
    3. C. 50 cm²
    4. D. 100 cm²

    Answer: C. 50 cm²

    A = ½(b₁ + b₂)h = ½(8 + 12)(5) = ½(20)(5) = 50 cm².

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